Why do they insist on this artificial “40 years of emnity” timeline? This timeline is the narrative of the US establishment, the very thing that these commentators are disagreeing with. Why don’t they go back a bit farther, to the cause of the “40 years of enmity”, the root of the hostility, the coup against democratically elected Mohammad Mosaddeq, now admitted by the CIA, and the subsequent promotion of the monarchical rule of Mohammad Reza Pahlavi?
Why do they insist on this artificial “40 years of emnity” timeline? This timeline is the narrative of the US establishment, the very thing that these commentators are disagreeing with. Why don’t they go back a bit farther, to the cause of the “40 years of enmity”, the root of the hostility, the coup against democratically elected Mohammad Mosaddeq, now admitted by the CIA, and the subsequent promotion of the monarchical rule of Mohammad Reza Pahlavi?